Cardiothoracic & Vascular (Part 1)

You got 4 of 15 possible points.
Your score: 27%
Question

A 68 year old female ex-smoker has a chest x-ray as part of a septic screen. This show an ill-defined area of increased density within the left lower zone and CT is advised. CT of the thorax and abdomen demonstrates a 4cm mass within the left lower lobe suspicious for bronchogenic carcinoma. There is evidence of visceral pleura invasion and enlarged ipsilateral hilar, ipsilateral mediastinal and subcarinal lymph nodes. No other abnormality is identified.
What is the correct TNM classification for this tumour?

Correct Answer: 
T2a N2 M0

The size of the tumour and visceral pleural invasion make this lesion T2a. Chest wall invasion would make this tunmour T3 however this is not reported as present. Enlarged ipsilateral hilar, mediastinal and subcarinal nodes are N2. There is no evidence of a M1a/M1b lesion.

Score: 0 of 1
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T1b N1 M0

0

T2a N2 M0

0
Should have chosen
Selected

T2b N3 M0

Incorrect
0

T3 N2 M0

0

T3 N2 M1a

0

The size of the tumour and visceral pleural invasion make this lesion T2a. Chest wall invasion would make this tunmour T3 however this is not reported as present. Enlarged ipsilateral hilar, mediastinal and subcarinal nodes are N2. There is no evidence of a M1a/M1b lesion.

Question

A 45 year old male non-smoker with no family history of lung cancer has an incidental 7x5mm nodule detected in the right lower lobe during CT of the abdomen and pelvis for left renal colic.
What is the most appropriate course of action?

Correct Answer: 
Follow up CT at 3 months and then 1 year.

There are new guidelines from the British Thoracic Society for the investigation and management of pulmonary nodules (2015). They have produced a lengthly document, but the first few pages provide a summary of the recommendations, with flow-charts to help guide management. The guidelines overall aim to help reduce imaging follow-up. There is also a focus on using volumetric analysis of nodules, and calculating the risk of a nodule being malignant using a risk calculator (link provided in the references). They want to standardise the diagnostic approach for nodules detected incidentally and those that are found during screening.

Nodules with a maximum diameter of <5mm do not get followed up (instead of 4mm with the old Fleischner Guidelines). Nodules with a maximum diameter between 5 - 6mm get a CT at 1 year. Those between 6 - 8mm get a CT at 3 months. When these follow-up CTs are performed, ideally volumetrics should be calculated, and further follow-up guided by the volume doubling time (VDT). Those with a maximum diameter of >8mm get their risk calculated using the Brock Model Risk calculator (provided on the BTS website). The flow charts then determine follow-up based on the risk of malignancy calculated. If it has a malignant risk of <10%, then a CT in 3 months is advised. If it has a risk >10%, then a PET may be appropriate.

This particular nodule has a maximum diameter of 7mm. Therefore guidance states w should repeat CT at 3 months and calculate a VDT. Under old guidance (Fleischner society guidelines) the average size of this nodule would be calculated (6mm in this case), which for a low risk patient would mean a 12 month follow up CT.

Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Chest radiograph in 6 weeks

0

Follow up CT at 12 months

0
Selected

Follow up CT at 3 months and then 1 year.

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Initial follow up CT at 6 months

0

No further investigation

0

There are new guidelines from the British Thoracic Society for the investigation and management of pulmonary nodules (2015). They have produced a lengthly document, but the first few pages provide a summary of the recommendations, with flow-charts to help guide management. The guidelines overall aim to help reduce imaging follow-up. There is also a focus on using volumetric analysis of nodules, and calculating the risk of a nodule being malignant using a risk calculator (link provided in the references). They want to standardise the diagnostic approach for nodules detected incidentally and those that are found during screening.

Nodules with a maximum diameter of <5mm do not get followed up (instead of 4mm with the old Fleischner Guidelines). Nodules with a maximum diameter between 5 - 6mm get a CT at 1 year. Those between 6 - 8mm get a CT at 3 months. When these follow-up CTs are performed, ideally volumetrics should be calculated, and further follow-up guided by the volume doubling time (VDT). Those with a maximum diameter of >8mm get their risk calculated using the Brock Model Risk calculator (provided on the BTS website). The flow charts then determine follow-up based on the risk of malignancy calculated. If it has a malignant risk of <10%, then a CT in 3 months is advised. If it has a risk >10%, then a PET may be appropriate.

This particular nodule has a maximum diameter of 7mm. Therefore guidance states w should repeat CT at 3 months and calculate a VDT. Under old guidance (Fleischner society guidelines) the average size of this nodule would be calculated (6mm in this case), which for a low risk patient would mean a 12 month follow up CT.

Question

A 22 year old female has a CXR performed for chest pain. This reveals an opacity adjacent to the left cardiophrenic angle and CT is advised. CT thorax demonstrates a homogenously hypodense (HU -75) mass over the left pericardium and diaphragm. There is no evidence of invasion or mediastinal lymphadenopathy.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Thymolipoma

Thymolipomata are usually incidentally discovered on imaging of the chest for other reasons. They may however present with dyspnoea, chest pain or cough. Imaging characteristics are as described, they may also have some heterogeneity due to thymic soft tissue within the mass. Liposarcoma are generally of higher attenuation and less homogenous, as are teratomas. Mediastinal lipomatosis more often occurs in the upper mediastinum Oesophageal lipomas tend to arise within the lumen of the oesophagus and cause dysphagia.

Score: 0 of 1
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Liposarcoma

0

Teratoma

0

Thymolipoma

0
Should have chosen
Selected

Mediastinal lipomatosis

Incorrect
0

Oesophageal lipoma

0

Thymolipomata are usually incidentally discovered on imaging of the chest for other reasons. They may however present with dyspnoea, chest pain or cough. Imaging characteristics are as described, they may also have some heterogeneity due to thymic soft tissue within the mass. Liposarcoma are generally of higher attenuation and less homogenous, as are teratomas. Mediastinal lipomatosis more often occurs in the upper mediastinum Oesophageal lipomas tend to arise within the lumen of the oesophagus and cause dysphagia.

Question

A 25 year old male has a chest x-ray for immigration purposes. This demonstrates a mediastinal mass which displaces the anterior junctional line within the right paratracheal region. Subsequent CT of the chest reveals a well-defined multiloculated cystic lesion measuring 8x10cm with areas of fat, calcification and enhancing septa within it. There is no evidence of invasion.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Mature teratoma

The differential diagnosis above is of an anterior mediastinal mass. Mature teratomas are a type of germ cell tumour which are usually cystic and frequently contain fat and calcification. They are usually discovered incidentally and displace rather than invade surrounding structures. They may become symptomatic when large. Immature teratomas are usually solid. Thymomas may contain fat (thymolipoma) however calcification is not a usual feature in these tumours.

Score: 1 of 1
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Lymphoma

0
Selected

Mature teratoma

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Immature teratoma

0

Thymoma

0

Retrosternal thyroid goitre

0

The differential diagnosis above is of an anterior mediastinal mass. Mature teratomas are a type of germ cell tumour which are usually cystic and frequently contain fat and calcification. They are usually discovered incidentally and displace rather than invade surrounding structures. They may become symptomatic when large. Immature teratomas are usually solid. Thymomas may contain fat (thymolipoma) however calcification is not a usual feature in these tumours.

Question

A 65 year old Afro Carribean female with sickle cell disease has a CXR during a sickle crisis. This shows smooth margined masses obliterating the paravertebral stripe on the right and descending thoracic aorta on the left.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Extramedullary haematopoeisis

Extramedullary haematopoesis is a response to inadequate haemoglobin production and is seen in patients with haemolytic anaemias and myelofibrosis. Appearances on CT are of heterogenous soft tissue masses in the paravertebral regions with inhomogeneous contrast enhancement. The imaging appearances together with the clinical context are highly suggestive of extramedullary haematopoesis in this case. The other options are less likely in this case and have different imaging appearances, outlined in the short articles below.

Score: 0 of 1
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Castlemans disease

0

Extramedullary haematopoeisis

0
Should have chosen

Lymphadenopathy

0

Neurogenic tumour

0
Selected

Lymphoma

Incorrect
0

Extramedullary haematopoesis is a response to inadequate haemoglobin production and is seen in patients with haemolytic anaemias and myelofibrosis. Appearances on CT are of heterogenous soft tissue masses in the paravertebral regions with inhomogeneous contrast enhancement. The imaging appearances together with the clinical context are highly suggestive of extramedullary haematopoesis in this case. The other options are less likely in this case and have different imaging appearances, outlined in the short articles below.

Question

A 38 year old previously well male non-smoker presents with worsening shortness of breath and deranged liver function tests. A provisional diagnosis of biliary sepsis is made. CT of the abdomen and pelvis reveals basal emphysematous change and a nodular small liver with an irregular contour.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a hereditary metabolic disorder that typically affects middle aged adults and manifests as basal panlobular emphysema and hepatic cirrhosis.
Sarcoidosis can affect both the lung and liver however the imaging findings outlined above are atypical (hepatosplenomegaly, upper/mid zone lung disease).
Schistosomiasis can also affect the lung and the liver, typically with small pulmonary nodules and ground glass in the lung and liver cirrhosis.
Haemochromatosis causes liver cirrhosis but does not typically affcect the lungs.
Cystic fibrosis can also affect both the liver and the lungs however the patient was previouslkt well, which would not be the case if the patient hads a historyof CF.


Score: 0 of 1
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Sarcoidosis

0

Schistosomiasis

0

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

0
Should have chosen
Selected

Haemochromatosis

Incorrect
0

Cystic fibrosis

0

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a hereditary metabolic disorder that typically affects middle aged adults and manifests as basal panlobular emphysema and hepatic cirrhosis.
Sarcoidosis can affect both the lung and liver however the imaging findings outlined above are atypical (hepatosplenomegaly, upper/mid zone lung disease).
Schistosomiasis can also affect the lung and the liver, typically with small pulmonary nodules and ground glass in the lung and liver cirrhosis.
Haemochromatosis causes liver cirrhosis but does not typically affcect the lungs.
Cystic fibrosis can also affect both the liver and the lungs however the patient was previouslkt well, which would not be the case if the patient hads a historyof CF.


Question

A 75 year old female is admitted with new left sided weakness and atrial fibrillation (AF). A clinical diagnosis of stroke is made. CT head shows no acute haemorrhage and warfarin is subsequently started for AF. The patient remains bed bound. Five days later the patients condition worsens with dyspnoea and hypoxia. CXR reveals consolidation in the right mid and lower zones.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Aspiration pneumonia

The history of stroke and subsequent immobility (supine in bed) raise suspicion of aspiration pneumonia and pulmonary embolism. The patient is anticoagulated making PE less likely and the CXR appearances are against this also. Aspiration pneumonia in recumbent patients commonly affects the posterior segments of the upper lobe and superior segments of the lower lobes.

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Aspiration pneumonia

0
Should have chosen

Pulmonary infarction

0

Pulmonary oedema

0

Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

0
Selected

Pulmonary haemorrhage secondary to anticoagulation

Incorrect
0

The history of stroke and subsequent immobility (supine in bed) raise suspicion of aspiration pneumonia and pulmonary embolism. The patient is anticoagulated making PE less likely and the CXR appearances are against this also. Aspiration pneumonia in recumbent patients commonly affects the posterior segments of the upper lobe and superior segments of the lower lobes.

Question

A 38 year old female presents with acute onset shortness of breath and left sided chest pain. CXR reveals a left sided pneumothorax with mediastinal shift to the right. Numerous thin walled lucencies are noted throughout both lungs.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Lymphangiomyomatosis

Lymphangiomyomatosis (LAM) is a multisystem disorder which almost exclusively affect females of child bearing age. It may occur in isolation or in association with tuberous sclerosis. Chest findings include chylous pleural effusion, hyperinflation, variable sized thin walled cysts and recurrent pneumothoraces.

Score: 0 of 1
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Primary spontaneous pneumothorax

0

Lymphangiomyomatosis

0
Should have chosen

Cavitating lung metastases

0

Multiple arteriovenous malformation

0
Selected

Multiple cavitating granulomata

Incorrect
0

Lymphangiomyomatosis (LAM) is a multisystem disorder which almost exclusively affect females of child bearing age. It may occur in isolation or in association with tuberous sclerosis. Chest findings include chylous pleural effusion, hyperinflation, variable sized thin walled cysts and recurrent pneumothoraces.

Question

The obliteration of which of the following structures is most suggestive of a posterior mediastinal mass.

Correct Answer: 
Cervicothoracic sign

A mass extending above the superior clavicle with lung tissue located between the mass and the neck is likely to lie in the posterior mediastinum. This appearance is termed the cervicothoracic sign and is suggestive of a posterior mediastinal mass. Obliterated left subclavian artery reflection, Effacement/dense ascending aorta, & Obliterated cardiophrenic angle are suggestive of an anterior mediastinal mass. Pseudoparavertebral line (left) is suggestive of a middle mediastinal mass.

Score: 0 of 1
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Obliterated left subclavian artery reflection

0

Effacement/dense ascending aorta

0
Selected

Pseudoparavertebral line (left)

Incorrect
0

Obliterated cardiophrenic angle

0

Cervicothoracic sign

0
Should have chosen

A mass extending above the superior clavicle with lung tissue located between the mass and the neck is likely to lie in the posterior mediastinum. This appearance is termed the cervicothoracic sign and is suggestive of a posterior mediastinal mass. Obliterated left subclavian artery reflection, Effacement/dense ascending aorta, & Obliterated cardiophrenic angle are suggestive of an anterior mediastinal mass. Pseudoparavertebral line (left) is suggestive of a middle mediastinal mass.

Question

An 80 year old female is admitted with haematemesis and malaena. A CT scan shows bleeding form a lower GI source. She is transferred to the angiosuite for an angiogram. Which of the following signs are not directly or indirectly indicative of a bleeding source?

Correct Answer: 
A filling defect

A - D are all signs of abnormal vessels which may point to the source of bleeding. A filling defect within a vessel is more likely to represent an embolus or vessel thrombosis which is not relevant in this case.

References

RITI- Acute Adult G-I Bleeding: Imaging and Intervention http://www.e-lfh.org.uk/programmes/radiology/

Score: 0 of 1
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A pseudoaneurysm

0
Selected

Truncation of a muscular colic artery

Incorrect
0

Extravasation of contrast

0

Early venous filling

0

A filling defect

0
Should have chosen

A - D are all signs of abnormal vessels which may point to the source of bleeding. A filling defect within a vessel is more likely to represent an embolus or vessel thrombosis which is not relevant in this case.

References

RITI- Acute Adult G-I Bleeding: Imaging and Intervention http://www.e-lfh.org.uk/programmes/radiology/

Question

A 35 year old male has a CXR following a road traffic collision as part of a trauma series. This reveals a smooth margined opacity at the right cardiophrenic angle but no other abnormality. Subsequent trauma CT for possible abdominal injuries shows the right cardiophrenic angle mass to be well defined and of homogenously low density (HU 8) with no enhancement.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Pericardial cyst

Pericardial cysts are usually discovered incidentally during examinations performed for other reasons. Their imaging appearances are as described. The other lesions listed would have different attenuation and/or enhancement characteristics.

Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Morgagni hernia

0

Pericardial fat pad

0
Selected

Pericardial cyst

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Lymphadenopathy

0

Chyle leak

0

Pericardial cysts are usually discovered incidentally during examinations performed for other reasons. Their imaging appearances are as described. The other lesions listed would have different attenuation and/or enhancement characteristics.

Question

A 25 year old male presents with shortness of breath and back pain. CXR reveals bilateral upper zone reticular opacification with volume loss and upward hilar displacement. Thoracic spine x-ray shows a kyphosis and flowing syndesmophytes throughout the majority of the thoracic spine.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Ankylosing spondylitis

Ankylosing spondylitis is a multisystem autoimmiune condition which usually presents in young men. The condition manifests with respiratory (upper zone fibrosis, reticulonodular opacities, bullae and cavitation), musculoskeletal (sacroilitia, bamboo spine, bony erosion (spine) and enthesitis) and cardiac (aortic valve insufficiency and aortitis) complications to name a few.

Score: 0 of 1
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Selected

Tuberculosis

Incorrect
0

Ankylosing spondylitis

0
Should have chosen

Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis

0

Previous radiation therapy

0

Biapical pneumonia and haematogenous vertebral osteomyelitis

0

Ankylosing spondylitis is a multisystem autoimmiune condition which usually presents in young men. The condition manifests with respiratory (upper zone fibrosis, reticulonodular opacities, bullae and cavitation), musculoskeletal (sacroilitia, bamboo spine, bony erosion (spine) and enthesitis) and cardiac (aortic valve insufficiency and aortitis) complications to name a few.

Question

The obliteration of which of the following structures is most suggestive of an anterior mediastinal mass.

Correct Answer: 
Hilum overlay sign

The hilum overlay sign occurs when a mass arises in the anterior mediastinum and the hilar vessels are seen through the mass, meaning that the mass does NOT arise from the hilum. Due to the anatomy of the mediastinum most of these masses will lie in the anterior mediastinum. Widened paratracheal stripe, Lateral doughnut sign and AP window mass are seen with middle mediastinal masses. Widened paravertebral stripe is seen in posterior mediastinal masses.

Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Widened paratracheal stripe

0

Lateral doughnut sign

0

AP window mass

0
Selected

Hilum overlay sign

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Widened paravertebral stripe

0

The hilum overlay sign occurs when a mass arises in the anterior mediastinum and the hilar vessels are seen through the mass, meaning that the mass does NOT arise from the hilum. Due to the anatomy of the mediastinum most of these masses will lie in the anterior mediastinum. Widened paratracheal stripe, Lateral doughnut sign and AP window mass are seen with middle mediastinal masses. Widened paravertebral stripe is seen in posterior mediastinal masses.

Question

A 51 year old male smoker has an incidental 5x5mm nodule detected in the right upper lobe during a CT pulmonary angiogram performed for pleuritic chest pain. Follow up of this nodule is advised by the reporting radiologist.
What is the most appropriate course of action?

Correct Answer: 
Follow up CT at 12 months, if unchanged volumetrically no further follow up

There are new guidelines from the British Thoracic Society for the investigation and management of pulmonary nodules (2015). They have produced a lengthly document, but the first few pages provide a summary of the recommendations, with flow-charts to help guide management. The guidelines overall aim to help reduce imaging follow-up. There is also a focus on using volumetric analysis of nodules, and calculating the risk of a nodule being malignant using a risk calculator (link provided in the references). They want to standardise the diagnostic approach for nodules detected incidentally and those that are found during screening.

Nodules with a maximum diameter of <5mm do not get followed up (instead of 4mm with the old Fleischner Guidelines). Nodules with a maximum diameter between 5 - 6mm get a CT at 1 year. Those between 6 - 8mm get a CT at 3 months. When these follow-up CTs are performed, ideally volumetrics should be calculated, and further follow-up guided by the volume doubling time (VDT). Those with a maximum diameter of >8mm get their risk calculated using the Brock Model Risk calculator (provided on the BTS website). The flow charts then determine follow-up based on the risk of malignancy calculated. If it has a malignant risk of <10%, then a CT in 3 months is advised. If it has a risk >10%, then a PET may be appropriate.

This particular nodule has a maximum diameter of 5mm. Therefore we should repeat CT at 1 year. If the size is stable using volumetry, then the patient can be discharged. If it is measured using only the 2D diameter and shown to be stable, then a further follow-up CT in another 12 months is recommended. This demonstrates the emphasis of the new guidelines on volumetric measurements. Under old guidance (Fleischner society guidelines) the average size of this nodule would be calculated (5mm in this case), which for a high risk patient such as this would mean follow up CTs at 6-12 & 18-24 months.

Score: 0 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Calculate risk of malignancy using British Thoracic Society Risk Calculator

0

Follow up CT at 12 months, if unchanged volumetrically no further follow up

0
Should have chosen

Initial follow up CT at 6 months

0
Selected

Initial follow up CT at 3 months

Incorrect
0

Staging CT of the chest and abdomen

0

There are new guidelines from the British Thoracic Society for the investigation and management of pulmonary nodules (2015). They have produced a lengthly document, but the first few pages provide a summary of the recommendations, with flow-charts to help guide management. The guidelines overall aim to help reduce imaging follow-up. There is also a focus on using volumetric analysis of nodules, and calculating the risk of a nodule being malignant using a risk calculator (link provided in the references). They want to standardise the diagnostic approach for nodules detected incidentally and those that are found during screening.

Nodules with a maximum diameter of <5mm do not get followed up (instead of 4mm with the old Fleischner Guidelines). Nodules with a maximum diameter between 5 - 6mm get a CT at 1 year. Those between 6 - 8mm get a CT at 3 months. When these follow-up CTs are performed, ideally volumetrics should be calculated, and further follow-up guided by the volume doubling time (VDT). Those with a maximum diameter of >8mm get their risk calculated using the Brock Model Risk calculator (provided on the BTS website). The flow charts then determine follow-up based on the risk of malignancy calculated. If it has a malignant risk of <10%, then a CT in 3 months is advised. If it has a risk >10%, then a PET may be appropriate.

This particular nodule has a maximum diameter of 5mm. Therefore we should repeat CT at 1 year. If the size is stable using volumetry, then the patient can be discharged. If it is measured using only the 2D diameter and shown to be stable, then a further follow-up CT in another 12 months is recommended. This demonstrates the emphasis of the new guidelines on volumetric measurements. Under old guidance (Fleischner society guidelines) the average size of this nodule would be calculated (5mm in this case), which for a high risk patient such as this would mean follow up CTs at 6-12 & 18-24 months.

Question

A 57 year old male smoker has a chest x-ray for chronic cough. This shows a 2cm nodule within the right upper zone and CT is advised. CT of the thorax and abdomen demonstrates a 3.5cm mass within the peripheral right upper lobe which invades the chest wall suspicious for bronchogenic carcinoma. There are further nodules within the right upper lobe but no other lung abnormality.
What is the correct T stage for this tumour?

Correct Answer: 
T3

On size criteria alone this tumour would be T2a. Chest wall invasion and nodules within the same lobe upgrade the tumour to T3.

Score: 0 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

T1b

0
Selected

T2a

Incorrect
0

T2b

0

T3

0
Should have chosen

T4

0

On size criteria alone this tumour would be T2a. Chest wall invasion and nodules within the same lobe upgrade the tumour to T3.

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