Gastrointestinal (Part 1)

You got 6 of 15 possible points.
Your score: 40%
Question 1

A bariatric patient comes through your CT scanner. The request card says the patient has had a Roux-En-Y gastric bypass. What would you expect to see?

Correct Answer: 
A gastric pouch, with a gastrojejunostomy and jejunojejunostomy

Bariatric operations can be distinguished into restrictive, malabsorptive or combined. A restrictive operation is one restricting intake, such as a gastric band. Malabdorptive operations primarily reduce the guts ability to absorb nutrients, and an example of this is a Biliopancreatic Diversion. The most common example of a combined operation would be a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.

In a Roux-en-y gastric bypass, the stomach is divided proximally, creating a small gastric pouch. The jejunum is then divided, and the distal end is brought up to join the gastric pouch, creating a gastrojejunostomy. Food content now passes through the small gastric pouch directly into the jejunum. The remianing proximal free end of the jejunum is then anastamosed to the distal jejunum, creating a jejunojejunostomy. This means the gastric and pancreatic secretions will join the ingested food further down the small bowel. The common limb (where ingested contets and digestive juices travel together) is long, and so this operation is mildly malabsorbative.

In contrast, a much less common operation is the Biliopancreatic Diversion with Duodenal Switch. This is a similar operation to the Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, but it excludes a lot more of the small intestine, meaning its malabsorbative effect is much greater. In this case, the stomach is not divided, but rather a sleeve gastrectomy is performed, where the greater curve is removed, reducing the stomachs overall capacity. This maintains the normal gastric outflow into the duodenum. The proximal duodenum is then divided and connected to the distal jejunum. The biliary-pancreatic limb is now connected to the distal jejunum, but because this is done more distally, the common limb in this operation is very short when compared with a Roux-en-Y bypass, meaning there is a much bigger malabsorbative effect.

Hepaticojejunostomies are where the biliary system is anastamosed to the jejunum to bypass a stricture/injury/malignancy in the distal ducts. A Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure), is often used for removing malignancies in the pancreatic head.


References

Imaging of Bariatric Surgery: Normal Anatomy and Postoperative Complications: http://pubs.rsna.org/doi/abs/10.1148/radiol.13122520

Roux-en-Y gastric bypass: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=F-p15pylbnI
Biliopancreatic diversion (BPD) with Duodenal Switch : https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sac8mT1Ow1k

Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

A sleeve gastrectomy, with gastrojejunostomy and jejunojejunostomy

0

Pancreaticoduodenectomy

0

Gastrojejunostomy

0

Hepaticojejunostomy

0
Selected

A gastric pouch, with a gastrojejunostomy and jejunojejunostomy

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Bariatric operations can be distinguished into restrictive, malabsorptive or combined. A restrictive operation is one restricting intake, such as a gastric band. Malabdorptive operations primarily reduce the guts ability to absorb nutrients, and an example of this is a Biliopancreatic Diversion. The most common example of a combined operation would be a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass.

In a Roux-en-y gastric bypass, the stomach is divided proximally, creating a small gastric pouch. The jejunum is then divided, and the distal end is brought up to join the gastric pouch, creating a gastrojejunostomy. Food content now passes through the small gastric pouch directly into the jejunum. The remianing proximal free end of the jejunum is then anastamosed to the distal jejunum, creating a jejunojejunostomy. This means the gastric and pancreatic secretions will join the ingested food further down the small bowel. The common limb (where ingested contets and digestive juices travel together) is long, and so this operation is mildly malabsorbative.

In contrast, a much less common operation is the Biliopancreatic Diversion with Duodenal Switch. This is a similar operation to the Roux-en-Y gastric bypass, but it excludes a lot more of the small intestine, meaning its malabsorbative effect is much greater. In this case, the stomach is not divided, but rather a sleeve gastrectomy is performed, where the greater curve is removed, reducing the stomachs overall capacity. This maintains the normal gastric outflow into the duodenum. The proximal duodenum is then divided and connected to the distal jejunum. The biliary-pancreatic limb is now connected to the distal jejunum, but because this is done more distally, the common limb in this operation is very short when compared with a Roux-en-Y bypass, meaning there is a much bigger malabsorbative effect.

Hepaticojejunostomies are where the biliary system is anastamosed to the jejunum to bypass a stricture/injury/malignancy in the distal ducts. A Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure), is often used for removing malignancies in the pancreatic head.


References

Imaging of Bariatric Surgery: Normal Anatomy and Postoperative Complications: http://pubs.rsna.org/doi/abs/10.1148/radiol.13122520

Roux-en-Y gastric bypass: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=F-p15pylbnI
Biliopancreatic diversion (BPD) with Duodenal Switch : https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=sac8mT1Ow1k

Question 2

You are reporting a liver MRI, and you note that the liver is of low signal on in-phase sequences, and relatively higher signal on out-of-phase sequences. What do these appearances suggest?

Correct Answer: 
Haemochromatosis

These MRI findings are typical of Haemochromatosis. Iron deposition produces susceptibility artefact reducing signal on all MRI sequences, but especially T2 and Gradient Echo. This makes the liver look darker than skeletal muscle. In a normal liver the signal on in-phase and out-of-phase sequences is fairly equivalent. In diffuse hepatic steatosis (fatty infiltration), there is signal drop out on the out-of-phase sequences. The opposite is true for haemochromatosis, where the in-phase sequences (which are more susceprtible to T2* effects) demonstrate significant signal drop out when compared with the out-of-phase sequences.

Copper deposition in Wilson’s disease does not have a ferro-magnetic affect, and so does not cause signal drop-out. Acute hepatitis would not have this effect on these MRI sequences.


Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Nothing - Normal Liver

0

Hepatic Steatosis

0
Selected

Haemochromatosis

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Hepatitis

0

Wilson’s Disease

0

These MRI findings are typical of Haemochromatosis. Iron deposition produces susceptibility artefact reducing signal on all MRI sequences, but especially T2 and Gradient Echo. This makes the liver look darker than skeletal muscle. In a normal liver the signal on in-phase and out-of-phase sequences is fairly equivalent. In diffuse hepatic steatosis (fatty infiltration), there is signal drop out on the out-of-phase sequences. The opposite is true for haemochromatosis, where the in-phase sequences (which are more susceprtible to T2* effects) demonstrate significant signal drop out when compared with the out-of-phase sequences.

Copper deposition in Wilson’s disease does not have a ferro-magnetic affect, and so does not cause signal drop-out. Acute hepatitis would not have this effect on these MRI sequences.


Question 3

A patient is undergoing a small bowel MRI, and you have been asked to administer Buscopan (Hyoscine Bulylbromide). Which of the following is a contra-indication?

Correct Answer: 
Prostatic enlargement

Acute MI, Open angle glaucoma, Hyperthyroidism and Ulceratice Colitis are all classed as cautions.

Prostatic enlargement is a contraindication. Myasthenia gravis, toxic megacolon, paralytic ileus, closed angle glaucoma and pyloric stenosis are also contraindications.

Score: 0 of 1
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Acute myocardial infarction

0
Selected

Open angle glaucoma

Incorrect
0

Hyperthyroidism

0

Prostatic enlargement

0
Should have chosen

Ulcerative colitis

0

Acute MI, Open angle glaucoma, Hyperthyroidism and Ulceratice Colitis are all classed as cautions.

Prostatic enlargement is a contraindication. Myasthenia gravis, toxic megacolon, paralytic ileus, closed angle glaucoma and pyloric stenosis are also contraindications.

Question 4

A 23yr old girl with abdominal pain has an endoscopy which reveals a smooth round mass projecting from the wall of her stomach. Histology confirms this is a Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumour (GIST). Subsequent chest x-ray reveals a pulmonary nodule containing ‘popcorn calcification’ in its centre. Which other tumour is this girl at risk of?

Correct Answer: 
Phaeochromocytoma

Carney’s triad is one of the Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia syndromes, and it is characterised by 3 tumours: GIST, Pulmonary Hamartomas (chondromas), and extra-adrenal phaeochromocytomas (also referred to as extra-adrenal paragangliogliomas). The calcification described within the lung nodule is characteristic of a pulmonary hamartoma.

Score: 0 of 1
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Selected

Carcinoid

Incorrect
0

FNH

0

Phaeochromocytoma

0
Should have chosen

Pituitary Adenoma

0

Medullary Thyroid Tumour

0

Carney’s triad is one of the Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia syndromes, and it is characterised by 3 tumours: GIST, Pulmonary Hamartomas (chondromas), and extra-adrenal phaeochromocytomas (also referred to as extra-adrenal paragangliogliomas). The calcification described within the lung nodule is characteristic of a pulmonary hamartoma.

Question 5

A 63yr old man has a CT scan. A 3cm x 4cm cystic lesion is seen within the pancreatic tail. The wall of the lesion enhances. On subsequent MRCP the lesion is shown to be high signal on T2 sequences, but there are internal low signal components within its dependant portion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Pseudocyst

Pancreatic pseudocysts are the most common cystic pancreatic lesion, and should always be considered in a patient with a history of pancreatitis (or the causes thereof). On CT they usually appear cystic with an enhancing wall, and can be very large. On MRI they are typically of homogenous T2 signal, and on MRI the presence of layering or dependent debris is highly specific. 50% of pseudocysts maintain a connection with the pancreatic duct and are therefore difficult to treat, as fluid can reaccumulate. Indications for treatment are infection, or mass effect from their potentially large size.

Worrying features which would point towards the other differentials are; internal septations, calcifications, central scars, a dilated pancreatic duct, solid enhancing components or an irregularly thickened wall. Mucinous cystic neoplasms (of which mucinous cystadenoma is a form) occur almost exclusively in women (99%).


References

http://radiopaedia.org/articles/pancreatic-pseudocyst-1
http://www.radiologyassistant.nl/en/p4ec7bb77267de/pancreas-cystic-lesio... - An excellent article taking you through the various cystic pancreatic lesions.

Score: 0 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Serous Cystadenoma

0
Selected

Mucious Cystadenoma

Incorrect
0

IPMT (Intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasm)

0

Pseudocyst

0
Should have chosen

Adenocarcinoma

0

Pancreatic pseudocysts are the most common cystic pancreatic lesion, and should always be considered in a patient with a history of pancreatitis (or the causes thereof). On CT they usually appear cystic with an enhancing wall, and can be very large. On MRI they are typically of homogenous T2 signal, and on MRI the presence of layering or dependent debris is highly specific. 50% of pseudocysts maintain a connection with the pancreatic duct and are therefore difficult to treat, as fluid can reaccumulate. Indications for treatment are infection, or mass effect from their potentially large size.

Worrying features which would point towards the other differentials are; internal septations, calcifications, central scars, a dilated pancreatic duct, solid enhancing components or an irregularly thickened wall. Mucinous cystic neoplasms (of which mucinous cystadenoma is a form) occur almost exclusively in women (99%).


References

http://radiopaedia.org/articles/pancreatic-pseudocyst-1
http://www.radiologyassistant.nl/en/p4ec7bb77267de/pancreas-cystic-lesio... - An excellent article taking you through the various cystic pancreatic lesions.

Question 6

A 29yr old girl has an ultrasound scan which reveals a focal liver lesion. The lesion is ill defined and hypoechoic, measuring 2.2cm x 1.5cm. The radiologist then performed a contrast enhanced ultrasound to further characterise the lesion. Which of the following findings would best support a diagnosis of Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)?

Correct Answer: 
Prominent arterial centrifugal filling

Although contrast enhanced ultrasound may not currently be widely used, the principles of the enhancement patterns still apply. FNH is usually discovered incidentally, and is thought to represent benign proliferation of normal hepatocytes around a pre-existing AVM. This means that the lesion gets its blood supply from the hepatic artery, and therefore demonstrates arterial enhancement. This enhancement is classically centrifugal (from centre to periphery), starting within a central scar and radiating outwards through stellate arteries. There is often homogenous sustained enhancement of the mass in the portal venous phase (which on CT makes the lesion look isodense in the portal venous phase.) In young patients the differential is often that of an adenoma. Centripetal or mixed arterial enhancement is more common in adenoma. Adenomas also have a more mixed appearance in the portal venous phase, and can washout or show sustained enhancement.

Score: 0 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Prominent arterial centrifugal filling

0
Should have chosen

Washout of contrast in the portal venous phase

0

Early contrast enhancement around the periphery of the lesion

0

Prominent arterial centripetal filling

0
Selected

Heterogeneous enhancement in the delayed phase

Incorrect
0

Although contrast enhanced ultrasound may not currently be widely used, the principles of the enhancement patterns still apply. FNH is usually discovered incidentally, and is thought to represent benign proliferation of normal hepatocytes around a pre-existing AVM. This means that the lesion gets its blood supply from the hepatic artery, and therefore demonstrates arterial enhancement. This enhancement is classically centrifugal (from centre to periphery), starting within a central scar and radiating outwards through stellate arteries. There is often homogenous sustained enhancement of the mass in the portal venous phase (which on CT makes the lesion look isodense in the portal venous phase.) In young patients the differential is often that of an adenoma. Centripetal or mixed arterial enhancement is more common in adenoma. Adenomas also have a more mixed appearance in the portal venous phase, and can washout or show sustained enhancement.

Question 7

A 75yr old lady has an operation to remove a T3 adenocarcinoma from her sigmoid colon. CT 1 week later demonstrates a colostomy formed from her descending colon, and a blind ending rectal stump within the pelvis. Which operation has she had?

Correct Answer: 
Hartmann Procedure

The Hartmann procedure involves resection of the rectosigmoid colon, with formation of a distal colostomy, and a rectal or colonic stump. This procedure is often performed instead of a primary anastamosis in patients who are at high risk of a leak. It allows time for the bowel to heal, before a ‘takedown’ is performed and the two ends of the bowel are anastomosed.

An AP resection involves removal of part of the sigmoid colon, the rectum and the anus, with formation of a permanent colostomy. An anterior resection involves resection of the recto-sigmoid colon, with anastomosis of the descending colon and rectum. A ‘low’ anterior resection involves resecting to a point further down the rectum. A sigmoid colectomy is where part or all of the sigmoid is removed, and the two ends are anastomosed. A left hemicolectomy is where the descending colon is removed and the transverse colon and sigmoid colon are anastomosed. The term ‘extended’ left and right hemicolectomy refer to where part of the transverse colon is also resected.


References

Multidetector CT of the Postoperative Colon: Review of Normal Appearances and Common Complications: http://pubs.rsna.org/doi/abs/10.1148/rg.332125723

Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Abdominoperineal Resection (AP resection)

0

Anterior Resection

0

Sigmoid colectomy

0

Extended left hemicolectomy

0
Selected

Hartmann Procedure

Correct
1
Should have chosen

The Hartmann procedure involves resection of the rectosigmoid colon, with formation of a distal colostomy, and a rectal or colonic stump. This procedure is often performed instead of a primary anastamosis in patients who are at high risk of a leak. It allows time for the bowel to heal, before a ‘takedown’ is performed and the two ends of the bowel are anastomosed.

An AP resection involves removal of part of the sigmoid colon, the rectum and the anus, with formation of a permanent colostomy. An anterior resection involves resection of the recto-sigmoid colon, with anastomosis of the descending colon and rectum. A ‘low’ anterior resection involves resecting to a point further down the rectum. A sigmoid colectomy is where part or all of the sigmoid is removed, and the two ends are anastomosed. A left hemicolectomy is where the descending colon is removed and the transverse colon and sigmoid colon are anastomosed. The term ‘extended’ left and right hemicolectomy refer to where part of the transverse colon is also resected.


References

Multidetector CT of the Postoperative Colon: Review of Normal Appearances and Common Complications: http://pubs.rsna.org/doi/abs/10.1148/rg.332125723

Question 8

Two 5mm gallbladder polyps are identified on the ultrasound of a 67yr old lady. What is the most appropriate management?

Correct Answer: 
No follow-up

Gallbladder polyps are common (5% of people), and typically appear as non-shadowing immobile lesions attached to the gallbladder wall.

Although individual institutional practices may vary, a retrospective analysis in Radiology from 2011 did not find cancer in polyps less than 6mm. Their conclusion was that these small lesions should be left without follow-up. The presence of more than one lesion (as in this case) reduces the risk of malignancy even further. Single polyps that are larger than this should probably be followed up, and those greater than a centimetre may want to be considered for cholecystectomy.


References

Incidentally Detected Gallbladder Polyps: Is Follow-up Necessary?—Long-term Clinical and US Analysis of 346 Patients: http://pubs.rsna.org/doi/full/10.1148/radiol.10100273

Score: 0 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

No follow-up

0
Should have chosen

Follow-up ultrasound in 3 months

0
Selected

Follow-up ultrasound in 6 months

Incorrect
0

Cross sectional imaging

0

Referral for cholecystectomy

0

Gallbladder polyps are common (5% of people), and typically appear as non-shadowing immobile lesions attached to the gallbladder wall.

Although individual institutional practices may vary, a retrospective analysis in Radiology from 2011 did not find cancer in polyps less than 6mm. Their conclusion was that these small lesions should be left without follow-up. The presence of more than one lesion (as in this case) reduces the risk of malignancy even further. Single polyps that are larger than this should probably be followed up, and those greater than a centimetre may want to be considered for cholecystectomy.


References

Incidentally Detected Gallbladder Polyps: Is Follow-up Necessary?—Long-term Clinical and US Analysis of 346 Patients: http://pubs.rsna.org/doi/full/10.1148/radiol.10100273

Question 9

A 73 yr old patient was under surveillance for his previously resected colorectal cancer. An ultrasound demonstrated a small echogenic lesion adjacent to the ligamentum teres. Subsequent CT in the portal venous phase demonstrated a small hypoedense lesion anteriorly in segment 4a, adjacent to the falciform ligament. What is this most likely to be?

Correct Answer: 
Focal hepatic steatosis

Focal hepatic steatosis (focal fat deposition in the liver) is common, and is thought to be due to variations in the vascular supply to different areas of the liver. This is a classic location for such a finding. Its imaging appearances are also characteristic of fat, being hyperechoic on ultrasound and low attenuation on CT.

Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Haemangioma

0

Metastatic deposit

0

Focal fatty sparing

0
Selected

Focal hepatic steatosis

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Adenoma

0

Focal hepatic steatosis (focal fat deposition in the liver) is common, and is thought to be due to variations in the vascular supply to different areas of the liver. This is a classic location for such a finding. Its imaging appearances are also characteristic of fat, being hyperechoic on ultrasound and low attenuation on CT.

Question 10

A 76yr old patient undergoes a rectal MRI for local staging of a suspicious lesion seen on colonoscopy. Which of the following is the best sequence for assessing the primary tumour?

Correct Answer: 
T2

The best sequence for assessing a primary rectal tumour on MRI is currently high resolution T2 weighted imaging, orthogonal to the tumour plane. This sequence allows you to differentiate between tumours confined within the rectal wall, and those that extend beyond the muscularis propria.

Score: 0 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

T2

0
Should have chosen

T1

0

STIR

0

T1 with contrast enhancement

0
Selected

T1 with IV contrast enhancement and fat suppression

Incorrect
0

The best sequence for assessing a primary rectal tumour on MRI is currently high resolution T2 weighted imaging, orthogonal to the tumour plane. This sequence allows you to differentiate between tumours confined within the rectal wall, and those that extend beyond the muscularis propria.

Question 11

A 20yr old girl presents with malaise and abdominal pain to her GP, who on examination notes that her left hand is very cold, and her peripheral pulses are weak. He refers her to the vascular surgeons who request an angiographic phase CT. CT demonstrates wall thickening and enhancement of the aortic arch, with stenosis particularly affecting the proximal portion of the left subclavian artery. There is also narrowing of the SMA. What is the probable diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Takayasu Arteritis

Takayasu’s generally affects the large and medium vessels such as the aorta and its major branches. It has a strong female predominance (9:1) and a young age of onset. On CT there is wall thickening and enhancement early on, which progresses to stenosis/occlusion. There can be aneurysmal dilatation, and in the late stages the distal aorta can appear narrowed.

Polyarteritis Nodosa is a medium vessel vasculitis, with a characteristic finding of multiple aneurysm formation. These form after segmental weakening of the arterial wall due to inflammation. The symptoms are usually due to ischaemia and infarction of the affected organ. The renal arteries are most commonly involved, classically with multiple microaneurysms identified the kidney on angiography.

Fibromuscular dysplasia is a non-inflammatory vascular disease which commonly affects the renal arteries. It causes intermittent arterial stenosis and aneurysmal dilatation which gives a ‘string of beads’ appearance. It responds very well to angioplasty. Microscopic polyangitis is a small vessel vasculitis, and on angiography the tiny microaneurysms are not typically seen. Bechet’s is a vasculitis affecting multiple organ systems, but classically with a triad of oral and genital ulceration and uveitis. When it affects the GI tract, it causes large ulcerations, particularly in the terminal ileum.



References

Radiologic Features of Vasculitis Involving the Gastrointestinal Tract: http://pubs.rsna.org/doi/full/10.1148/radiographics.20.3.g00mc02779
http://radiopaedia.org/articles/polyarteritis-nodosa-1

Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Bechet Syndrome

0

Polyarteritis Nodosa

0

Microscopic Polyangitis

0
Selected

Takayasu Arteritis

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Fibromuscular Dysplasia

0

Takayasu’s generally affects the large and medium vessels such as the aorta and its major branches. It has a strong female predominance (9:1) and a young age of onset. On CT there is wall thickening and enhancement early on, which progresses to stenosis/occlusion. There can be aneurysmal dilatation, and in the late stages the distal aorta can appear narrowed.

Polyarteritis Nodosa is a medium vessel vasculitis, with a characteristic finding of multiple aneurysm formation. These form after segmental weakening of the arterial wall due to inflammation. The symptoms are usually due to ischaemia and infarction of the affected organ. The renal arteries are most commonly involved, classically with multiple microaneurysms identified the kidney on angiography.

Fibromuscular dysplasia is a non-inflammatory vascular disease which commonly affects the renal arteries. It causes intermittent arterial stenosis and aneurysmal dilatation which gives a ‘string of beads’ appearance. It responds very well to angioplasty. Microscopic polyangitis is a small vessel vasculitis, and on angiography the tiny microaneurysms are not typically seen. Bechet’s is a vasculitis affecting multiple organ systems, but classically with a triad of oral and genital ulceration and uveitis. When it affects the GI tract, it causes large ulcerations, particularly in the terminal ileum.



References

Radiologic Features of Vasculitis Involving the Gastrointestinal Tract: http://pubs.rsna.org/doi/full/10.1148/radiographics.20.3.g00mc02779
http://radiopaedia.org/articles/polyarteritis-nodosa-1

Question 12

A 31yr old lady presents to the emergency department overnight with acute abdominal pain. She has no significant history besides being on the oral contraceptive pill. On CT her liver appears mottled, with decreased peripheral enhancement. The caudate lobe is noted to be enlarged, but enhances normally. There is a small volume of ascites. Given these findings, occlusion of which structure is the most likely cause?

Correct Answer: 
Hepatic Veins

The pattern of inhomegnous mottling of the liver, with reduced peripheral enhancement and caudate enlargement is typical of Budd-Chiari Syndrome (Hepatic vein occlusion). Clinically it can present acutely with abdominal pain, hepatomegaly and ascites, however with most patients it is slower onset, and can be painless. The lack of venous drainage causes the liver to become congested, which causes reduced (or reversed) portal venous flow. This means peripheral enhancement is reduced. The caudate lobe is often spared as it has seperate anastamoses to the IVC. Obviously the finding to look for on imaging is occlusion to the hepatic veins/IVC.

The other named structures, if occluded, would not typically give this assortment of findings.


Score: 0 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Hepatic Artery

0

Hepatic Veins

0
Should have chosen

Portal Vein

0

Bile ducts

0
Selected

Lymphatic drainage to the liver

Incorrect
0

The pattern of inhomegnous mottling of the liver, with reduced peripheral enhancement and caudate enlargement is typical of Budd-Chiari Syndrome (Hepatic vein occlusion). Clinically it can present acutely with abdominal pain, hepatomegaly and ascites, however with most patients it is slower onset, and can be painless. The lack of venous drainage causes the liver to become congested, which causes reduced (or reversed) portal venous flow. This means peripheral enhancement is reduced. The caudate lobe is often spared as it has seperate anastamoses to the IVC. Obviously the finding to look for on imaging is occlusion to the hepatic veins/IVC.

The other named structures, if occluded, would not typically give this assortment of findings.


Question 13

A 56yr old man presents with peripheral oedema, and his bloods show a hypoalbuminaemia. A CT abdomen identified thickened rugal folds in the stomach, and subsequent gastric pH testing on endoscopy noted hypochlorhydria. What is the likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Menetrier disease

This is a case of Menetrier disease. This is a rare form of hypertrophic gastropathy, characterised by thickened gastric folds on imaging. It results in hyperproduciton of mucous with a resulting protein loosing enteropathy, as well as and hypo/achlorhydria (low or absent stomach acid production). The patient often has oedema, ascites and pleural effusions.

Gastric lymphoma can also present with thickened rugal folds, but would not classically result in a protein losing enteropathy or hypochlorhydria. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is where a gastrinoma outside the stomach produces gastrin which increases stomach acid production (not reduces it). This condition can be associated with thickened gastric folds.

Bouveret syndrome is where a gallstone erodes through the gallladder and into the duodenum, where it lodges and causes obstruction. It most commonly occurs in elderly women. Mirrizi syndrome is where a large gallstone within the gallbladder causes extrinsic compression of the common bile duct.


Score: 1 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer
Selected

Menetrier disease

Correct
1
Should have chosen

Mirrizi Syndrome

0

Bouveret syndrome

0

Gastric Lymphoma

0

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

0

This is a case of Menetrier disease. This is a rare form of hypertrophic gastropathy, characterised by thickened gastric folds on imaging. It results in hyperproduciton of mucous with a resulting protein loosing enteropathy, as well as and hypo/achlorhydria (low or absent stomach acid production). The patient often has oedema, ascites and pleural effusions.

Gastric lymphoma can also present with thickened rugal folds, but would not classically result in a protein losing enteropathy or hypochlorhydria. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is where a gastrinoma outside the stomach produces gastrin which increases stomach acid production (not reduces it). This condition can be associated with thickened gastric folds.

Bouveret syndrome is where a gallstone erodes through the gallladder and into the duodenum, where it lodges and causes obstruction. It most commonly occurs in elderly women. Mirrizi syndrome is where a large gallstone within the gallbladder causes extrinsic compression of the common bile duct.


Question 14

A 39yr old man with a history of weight loss and abdominal pain presents with acute abdominal pain. CT demonstrates a thickwalled ileum, ascending and descending colon. Angiography demonstrates multiple micro-aneurysms in the branches of the SMA and hepatic artery. His bloods show an elevated ESR. What is the likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Polyarteritis Nodosa

Polyarteritis Nodosa is a medium vessel vasculitis, with a characteristic finding of multiple aneurysm formation. These form after segmental weakening of the arterial wall due to inflammation. The symptoms are usually due to ischaemia and infarction of the affected organ. The renal arteries are most commonly involved, classically with multiple microaneurysms identified the kidney on angiography. As in this case, the GI tract is also commonly affected.

Takayasu’s generally affects the large and medium vessels such as the aorta and its major branches. It has a strong female predominance (9:1) and a young age of onset. On CT there is wall thickening and enhancement early on, which progresses to stenosis/occlusion. There can be aneurysmal dilatation, and in the late stages the distal aorta can appear narrowed.

Fibromuscular dysplasia is a non-inflammatory vascular disease which commonly affects the renal arteries. It causes intermittent arterial stenosis and aneurysmal dilatation which gives a ‘string of beads’ appearance. It responds very well to angioplasty. Microscopic polyangitis is a small vessel vasculitis, and on angiography the tiny microaneurysms are not typically seen. Bechet’s is a vasculitis affecting multiple organ systems, but classically with a triad of oral and genital ulceration and uveitis. When it affects the GI tract, it causes large ulcerations, particularly in the terminal ileum.


Score: 0 of 1
Your answerChoiceCorrect?ScoreFeedbackCorrect answer

Takayasu Arteritis

0

Polyarteritis Nodosa

0
Should have chosen

Microscopic Polyangitis

0
Selected

Bechet Syndrome

Incorrect
0

Fibromuscular Dysplasia

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Polyarteritis Nodosa is a medium vessel vasculitis, with a characteristic finding of multiple aneurysm formation. These form after segmental weakening of the arterial wall due to inflammation. The symptoms are usually due to ischaemia and infarction of the affected organ. The renal arteries are most commonly involved, classically with multiple microaneurysms identified the kidney on angiography. As in this case, the GI tract is also commonly affected.

Takayasu’s generally affects the large and medium vessels such as the aorta and its major branches. It has a strong female predominance (9:1) and a young age of onset. On CT there is wall thickening and enhancement early on, which progresses to stenosis/occlusion. There can be aneurysmal dilatation, and in the late stages the distal aorta can appear narrowed.

Fibromuscular dysplasia is a non-inflammatory vascular disease which commonly affects the renal arteries. It causes intermittent arterial stenosis and aneurysmal dilatation which gives a ‘string of beads’ appearance. It responds very well to angioplasty. Microscopic polyangitis is a small vessel vasculitis, and on angiography the tiny microaneurysms are not typically seen. Bechet’s is a vasculitis affecting multiple organ systems, but classically with a triad of oral and genital ulceration and uveitis. When it affects the GI tract, it causes large ulcerations, particularly in the terminal ileum.


Question 15

A 22yr old lady on the contraceptive pill has a contrast enhanced ultrasound of a hypoechoic liver lesion. The lesion demonstrates prominent centripetal filling in the arterial phase. What is the likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: 
Adenoma

This is most likely to be an adenoma. They are the most common focal liver lesion in young women who are on the oral contraceptive pill. They are usually hypoechoic on ultrasound, and their enhancement is variable (but tends towards centripetal or mixed filling pattern). FNH is another possibility, but the enhancement pattern is not characteristic, and the presence of the contraceptive pill makes adenoma more likely. HCC is unlikely in this age-group. Haemangiomas are usually hyperechoic on ultrasound (90%), though do often enhance from the outside inwards. Focal fat would also be hyperechoic, and would not enhance.

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Focal Nodular Hyperplasia

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Adenoma

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HCC

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Haemangioma

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Focal steatosis

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This is most likely to be an adenoma. They are the most common focal liver lesion in young women who are on the oral contraceptive pill. They are usually hypoechoic on ultrasound, and their enhancement is variable (but tends towards centripetal or mixed filling pattern). FNH is another possibility, but the enhancement pattern is not characteristic, and the presence of the contraceptive pill makes adenoma more likely. HCC is unlikely in this age-group. Haemangiomas are usually hyperechoic on ultrasound (90%), though do often enhance from the outside inwards. Focal fat would also be hyperechoic, and would not enhance.

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