An 80 year old female is admitted with haematemesis and melaena. A CT scan shows bleeding from a lower GI source. She is transferred to the angiosuite for an angiogram. Which of the following signs are not directly or indirectly indicative of a bleeding source?
Correct Answer:
A filling defect
A pseudoaneurysm | |
Truncation of a muscular colic artery | |
Extravasation of contrast | |
Early venous filling | |
A filling defect |
A - D are all signs of abnormal vessels which may point to the source of bleeding. A filling defect within a vessel is more likely to represent an embolus or vessel thrombosis which is not relevant in this case.
References
RITI- Acute Adult G-I Bleeding: Imaging and Intervention http://www.e-lfh.org.uk/programmes/radiology/